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WHO IS HE ANYWAY ?

1. Jesus, Who is He?
A. Jesus has two natures at the same time: divine and human at the
same time. He is both God and man (John 1:1,14; Col. 2:9). This is
called the Hypostatic Union.

B. Jesus was born of the virgin Mary (Matt. 1:18; Luke 1:35).

C. "He was born under the Law (Gal. 4:4) and fulfilled all of the Law of
God (John 4:34 ; 8:29), even to the point of death (Phil. 2:8).

D. In His death He bore the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us
(Gal. 3:13). Thus in the death of Christ the sins of His people were
judged (Rom. 3:23-26) and forgotten (Heb. 8:12), and the result of
His act of righteousness was eternal life (Rom. 5:18).

E. Jesus is worshiped - (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6).

F. Jesus is prayed to - (Acts 7:55-60; Psalm 116:4 with 1 Cor. 1:1-2).

G. Jesus is called God - (John 20:28; Heb. 1:8).

H. He is the creator (John 1:1-3; Col. 1:15-17); Jesus is uncreated (John
1:1-3; Col. 1:15-17).
2. Verses showing Jesus is divine

A. He is God in flesh (John 1:1,14; 8:58 with Exodus 3:14; Col. 2:9; Phil.
2:5-8; Heb. 1:8).

B. John 1:1,14 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God...14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt
among us..."
i. This shows that Jesus is God in flesh.
ii. If you say that John 1:1 should be "a" god, then...
iii. If Jesus is "a" god, then isn't that polytheism?
iv. If Jesus is "a" god, then how many gods are their in JW
theology?
v. If Jesus is "a" god, then is he a true God or false god since the
Bible says there is only one God (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6,8)?
vi. If Jesus is "a" god, then why does he tell people to come to him
and not the Father (Matt. 11:28)?
C. John 8:58, "Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before
Abraham was born, I am.” With Exodus 3:14 "God said to Moses, “I
AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: ‘I AM has
sent me to you.’”

A. Jesus uses the same title for Himself that God uses of Himself.

B. If you say that the verse is really, "I have been", then why did
the Jews want to kill him -- especially when in John 10:30-33
they say they want to kill Him because He claimed to be God?

C Where and what did Jesus say to cause them to think that?

D. John 10:30-33, “I and the Father are one. 31 The Jews took up stones
again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I showed you many
good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?”
33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You,
but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out
to be God.”
. Re: John 10:30-33, What was Jesus saying that caused the
Jews to accuse Jesus of claiming to be God? If you can't say,
then you don't know the text or the culture well enough to
address the issue of Christ's deity.

E. John 20:27
. In John 20:27 Thomas called Jesus God by saying to Jesus, "My
Lord and My God". If Jesus is not God, then why did Jesus did
not correct Thomas. Four verses later, it says that this is
written so you might believe that Jesus is the son of God, (John
20:31). Therefore, we can see that the term Son of God is
saying that Jesus is God.

F. Col. 2:9, "For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,"

G. Phil. 2:5-7, "Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God
something to be grasped, 7 but made himself nothing, taking the very
nature of a servant, being made in human likeness."

H. Heb. 1:8, "But of the Son He [The Father] says, "Thy throne, O God, is
forever and ever..."
. If Jesus is not God, why does God Himself call Jesus God in
Heb. 1:8?

A. This is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which has the best translation
of "Thy Throne O God..."

3. Other Verses
A. John 10:30-33,"I and the Father are one." 31The Jews took up stones
again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, "I showed you many good
works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?" 33The
Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for
blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be
God."
. Notice the Jews said, "You being a man, make yourself out to
be God." What did Jesus say that caused the Pharisees to say
that Jesus was claiming to be God in John 10:30-33. If you
don't know, then you don't understand.
i. Regarding John 10:30-33, if you deny that Jesus is God in
flesh, then you are agreeing with the Jews who killed Christ
because they did not accept who He really was.

B. Col. 1:15-16, "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over
all creation. 16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven
and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers
or authorities; all things were created by him and for him."
. Firstborn is a transferable title and does not necessitate being
first created. Proof of this can be seen where Manasseh is the
first born (Gen. 41:51-52 and then his brother Ephraim is
called the firstborn (Jer. 31:9).
a. Gen. 41:51-52, "And Joseph called the name of the firstborn
Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget
all my toil, and all my father’s house. And the name of
the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me
fruitful in the land of my affliction."
b. Jer. 31:9, "...for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is
My firstborn."

C. 1 Cor. 1:2, "To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in
Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere
who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ—their Lord and ours."
D. Why is the phrase "Call upon the name of the LORD" (Hebrew,
YHWH, i.e., Psalm 116:4) used only of God on the OT, and
translated into the Greek in the LXX as "Call upon the name of
the LORD (greek, KURIOS)," applied to Jesus in the NT (1 Cor.
1:2) if Jesus is not God in flesh?
i. The LXX is the Septuagint which is the Greek translation of the
Hebrew Old Testament done by Jews around 200 B.C.
ii. Psalm 116:4, "Then I called upon the name of the Lord
[YHWH]: "O Lord [YHWH], I beseech Thee, save my
life!"
iii. The literal translation of 1 Cor. 1:2 is "...call upon the
name of the Lord of us Jesus Christ."


4. Son of God, Son of Man
A. Does the term "Son of God" mean that Jesus is not God? If so, then
does the term "Son of Man" mean that Jesus is not a man?
B. Likewise, if the term "Son of Man" means that Jesus is a man, then
what does the term "Son of God" imply?

5. The Resurrection of Christ
A. Jesus rose in the same body that He died in (John 2:19-21; Luke
24:36-43). Jesus' body is ‘resurrected.' We do not know exactly what
His body is like, but the nature of the resurrected body is discussed by
Paul in 1 Cor. 15:35-58.
. John 2:19-21, "Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple,
and I will raise it again in three days." 20 The Jews replied, “It
has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are
going to raise it in three days?” 21 But the temple he had
spoken of was his body."
i. Luke 24:39, "Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself!
Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as
you see I have.”
ii. Right now Jesus is in heaven, still as, and eternally to be both
God and man (1 Tim. 2:5; Col. 2:9).

. This is important because Jesus is the High Priest
forever: "where Jesus has entered as a forerunner for
us, having become a high priest forever according to the
order of Melchizedek,” (Heb. 6:20). A spirit cannot be a
high priest, only a man can do that. Furthermore, Jesus
always lives to make intercession for us "Hence, also, He
is able to save forever those who draw near to God
through Him, since He always lives to make intercession
for them," (Heb. 7:25).